If Germany had not violated the Soviet-Nazi non-aggression pact in 1941...

If Germany had not violated the Soviet-Nazi non-aggression pact in 1941, would the USSR become a member of the axis or remained neutral?

Other urls found in this thread:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German–Soviet_Axis_talks
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soviet_offensive_plans_controversy#Points
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generalplan_Ost
twitter.com/SFWRedditVideos

What kind of retarded question is this? The Anti-comintern Pact was already drafted in the 30s, of course it wouldn't be accepted into the Axis.

I think they would have just waited until Stalin died and then invaded.

The Germans, not the Soviets

Lel.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German–Soviet_Axis_talks

Soviet's would have had a cold war with Nazi empire or all out war later on. Would have prevented the Nazi regime's collapse so early. Could have transitioned to a Singapore/Vietnam style semi-totalitarian state with vague amounts of transparency. Holocaust and Invasion of Russia were dumbest things Germany ever did. Should have just invaded Poland/France

Stalin was going to attack anyway and Hitler found out, which is why he attacked first. Read Soviet docs.

They should have invaded England.

Kek, sounds like stuff the right say nowadays.

Holla Forums-tier pseudo history.

They would've failed at that too.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soviet_offensive_plans_controversy#Points

Only a few historians support the idea that Stalin planned to attack, and the idea that Hitler only attacked because he discovered Stalin's plans has been debunked.

that is their opinion, we have facts about the ussr's military production, positioning, logistics ops and some internal comms from the time.

you can chose to believe what you want

Why?

From the complete collapse of Russian forces in 1941, and the fact that Stalin quite possibly suffered a nervous breakdown in the first week of the German invasion, the argument that the USSR was preparing for an invasion of Nazi-occupied Europe (at least within a few years of 1941) is pretty tenuous.

actually its the opposite, it proves that Stalin did not have his military equipped or mobilized for defensive operations

Holla Forums's motto.

...

I'm saying that Holla Forums believes whatever makes it feel good, not what the facts demand. Believing that Hitler was the victim, when we know he planned the colonization of the USSR before 1940, is delusional.

Read a book nigger

"As subsequent events and archival evidence proves, the Red Army was in no condition to wage war in the summer of 1941 either offensively or, as the actual course of combat indicated, defensively."

Stalin dismissed intelligence from multiple German sources indicating that Hitler was preparing to invade the USSR, and later dismissed evidence that massive mobilisation of German forces on the Soviet-Nazi border was occurring. It stretches credibility that Soviet forces were on the verge of invading Nazi-occupied Europe, but were so obsessed with imaginary invasion plans that they ignored multiple evidence that their future opponent was planning some sort of preventative strike.

Top kek

Stormniggertry at its finest

proof

Majority of historians disagree with view that Stalin was going to strike against Germany first

...

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generalplan_Ost

Why is it OK for Holla Forums to make sweeping generalizations about people, but not OK for people to generalize about Holla Forums?

Likewise, Muller argues that Hitler had planned to invade the Soviet Union starting from the day he came to power check out his newish book Enemy in the East: Hitler's Secret Plans the Soviet Union

He had.

Seriously, I would like to hear your argument. I mean sure it would ave needed an aquatic invasion but, I think that the Nazi invasion of England would ave been successful because not only is Briton a much smaller land mas to hold but they also ad a working Fascist party (many of who were in the Aristocracy and could hold power easily) unlike in the Soviet Union whose only Far-Right party was a band of old white guards who had been forced into Mongolia and hadn't fought in 20 years. Not to mention with the Nazi ideas of "Germanic Brotherhood" the occupation force would have been much kinder to the populous and faced less resistance. You are wrong on this in my opinion.

I hate my Keyboard.

There's not much doubt that Germany would have won if it had managed to get its ground forces onto British soil. The British Army was tiny and it had suffered serious losses on the Western Front. The strength of the native fascist movement is not that important, seeing as Germany managed to occupy the rest of Western Europe without much resistance. The real problem Germany had was the strength of the RAF and Royal Navy. The Battle of Britain was actually much less close than commonly thought, because both sides underestimated the British advantage. Germany would have had to massively increase its production of fighters to win.

the BUF was tiny

Britain had the worlds largest navy and a superb air force. The Germans could barely attack Norway using the sea, and their fleet got wrecked while doing so. An invasion of Britain at that point was fantasy.

Both very good points

Germany probably would've been better off invading entirely via paratroopers and they would've been fucked invading entirely via paratroopers.

I think a land invasion could have worked. It would have been incredibly costly, but after taking London I don't think the British would have put up much more resistance. If they had done that I don't think the US would have even bothered with the European theater. Might have even teamed up with the Germans to take on the Soviets further down the road.

Still, this is alt-history speculation so it's not like we could ever really know.

But how do the Germans cross the sea when the British navy and air force are in control?