A challenge for Holla Forums: give me a non-arbitrary distinction between personal property and private property. As I'm sure you know, Marx considered value-adding assets used in the production process private property/means of production.
The issue is that this is a completely arbitrary categorization.
To illustrate this, I'll use the example of a chef's knife (an example I have used once before).
The chef uses his knife at home to prepare his food. It's a nice knife that he likes to use whenever he is cooking, but surely when he is using it at home and not being used in a value-adding process you wouldn't consider it private property that is requiring collectivization.
If he takes it to his place of work, does it become private property as soon as he's gotten out of bed in the morning, as soon as he had made the decision to bring it to work the preceding afternoon, assuming he places it in the back seat of his car, is it a mean of production as soon as his body crosses the threshhold onto the lot his business is on, or as soon as the knife crosses that threshhold, or as soon as he begins to prepare a dish that he believes he will be using the knife in, as soon as he picks up the knife to prepare that dish after gathering the ingredients- or what if he picks it up but puts it down near what is going to be cut up and then finally uses it two minutes later, is it private property as soon as the first atom of the knife has made contact with the first atom of the raw material being processed- but what if he just taps the food with the back of the knife but doesn't technically begin using it in the value-adding production process of cutting? When exactly does this transition between "personal" and "private" property occur; if you were preparing a revolution and you did not want to violate the sanctity of personal property at what point exactly would you be justified in taking the chef's knife (please consider both if he did and did not own his place of work)?
Another example, what if he sometimes prepared food at his home which he would, in rare cases, bring to his place of work to be sold as a product? Would the knife retroactively shift from "personal property that was used to produce his own food" to "private property that produced consumer goods" for the whole duration of him cooking, or only the portion of cooking that involved the knife? If he consistently used it as a means of production from his home, that is he produced goods which he frequently (but not on a scheduled basis) brought to work instead of consuming himself, could he avoid ever having his knife collectivized, even though it's used as private property, because it's impossible for an outside observer to know when the knife is being used in a value-adding production process? Is this a case of Schrödinger's private property, if he decides on a truly random basis would that mean that if you wanted to collectivize the knife you would always be at risk of seizing it for being used as private property? Is something just considered private property instead of personal property for eternity if it is used in value-adding processes in business? If that is the case, that would mean if you used your phone at work for a work-related task once it should be collectivized.
Suppose a laborer is penned up in a steel chamber, along with the following device (which must be secured against direct interference by the laborer): in a Geiger counter, there is a tiny bit of radioactive substance, so small, that perhaps in the course of the hour one of the atoms decays, but also, with equal probability, perhaps none; if it happens, the counter tube discharges and through a relay releases a hammer that rings a bell to signal the laborer to begin working with the machine on the raw materials in the chamber. If one has left this entire system to itself for an hour, one would say that the machine is still personal property if meanwhile no atom has decayed. The first atomic decay would have signaled it to work. The psi-function of the entire system would express this by having in it the personal and private property (pardon the expression) mixed or smeared out in equal parts.
If you can't tell me exactly where the line between personal property and private property is it's just an arbitrary distinction :^). In the same way there's an arbitrary distinction between a milquetoast leftist's idea of "too much wealth" e.g. when exactly do you reach a higher marginal tax rate.
Pic unrelated, connoisseur of of California French™ Champagne.