Oh no, I know my shit too.
But it is exactly when theory does not reflect reality and we still spout it woithout questioning it that is becomes dogma instead.
Therefore, I am consciously and willfully straying from theory which has only shown to have no actual historical predictive power, unless modified.
Likewise, there is a limit to how much surplus labour the boss may extract, because the state want there share too. Of course the bourgeois may choose to give the worker nothing, whus fully appropriating the labour-value of the product and thus nothing may be paid in taxes, but this would fundementally violate the agreement between the state and the bourgeoisie: indeed, in many countries like my own, the workers taxes are paid by the work-place directly, thus they are integral to the labour process; taxes, while being an exploitation realized in exchange-value or money, is an extraction or value from the labour of the worker just the same as the surplus value extracted from the work-place. Just because the nature of the value-form in which both are being extracted are different, does not mean that both are not extractions of value that you are not fully compensated for, and thus exploitation. The distinction is rather arbitrary and no commoner is going to feel the difference.
Mainly because, even at a 100% tax, capital may still accumulate, as capital reinvested in production is not actually taxed.
Thus capital may still acumulate and the powerful still get more mighty, just not in a money-form in this case.
Certainly, the worker-consumers may not be taxed at a 100% because that would mean a complete nullification of the velocity of money. That would mean that the system would have to revert to chattel slavery, but even this both the state and the bourgeoisie may accomodate for.
Of course, if the state wants to appropriate all value, you'd need to abolish the bourgeoisie.
Thus Stalinism. Thus why Marxism, which eliminates power of the bourgeoisie, opens a power vaccum in which the statist class may take over all power.
repeating this won't make it true. The state itself appropriates these labour-hours, not the bourgeoisie. Your view is very americanocentric, believing that the only kind of state is the weak kind of state that exists in the US. However, many other places, the balance of power tips in the other direction, with the state having more power than the bourgeoisie.
The reasons are arbirary: they may believe that I am the Son of God! Thus they believe I have power and authority, and thus I have power and authority! They surrender themselves and thus I have won! No productive process or capital is necessary for that at all.
However, capital may be used to coerce someone into subjugation: "Don't want to starve? Work in my factory!"
However, this coercion based on capital is not the only way to amass power and frankly its absurd to claim so
Exactly. And the state has a productive and exploitative process of its own: it might either own capital itself, gain a share of the surplus labour extracted from a worker, or command direct labour-hours itself, expoiting that way.
That way, as a function the state is just as the bourgeoisie as a funtion.